Different methods to compute $\sum\limits_{k=1}^\infty \frac{1}{k^2}$ (Basel problem)
OK, here's my favorite. I thought of this after reading a proof from the book "Proofs from the book" by Aigner & Ziegler, but later I found more or less the same proof as mine in a paper published a few years earlier by Josef Hofbauer. On Robin's list, the proof most similar to this is number 9 (EDIT: ...which is actually the proof that I read in Aigner & Ziegler).
When $0 < x < \pi/2$ we have $0<\sin x < x < \tan x$ and thus $$\frac{1}{\tan^2 x} < \frac{1}{x^2} < \frac{1}{\sin^2 x}.$$ Note that $1/\tan^2 x = 1/\sin^2 x - 1$. Split the interval $(0,\pi/2)$ into $2^n$ equal parts, and sum the inequality over the (inner) "gridpoints" $x_k=(\pi/2) \cdot (k/2^n)$: $$\sum_{k=1}^{2^n-1} \frac{1}{\sin^2 x_k} - \sum_{k=1}^{2^n-1} 1 < \sum_{k=1}^{2^n-1} \frac{1}{x_k^2} < \sum_{k=1}^{2^n-1} \frac{1}{\sin^2 x_k}.$$ Denoting the sum on the right-hand side by $S_n$, we can write this as $$S_n - (2^n - 1) < \sum_{k=1}^{2^n-1} \left( \frac{2 \cdot 2^n}{\pi} \right)^2 \frac{1}{k^2} < S_n.$$
Although $S_n$ looks like a complicated sum, it can actually be computed fairly easily. To begin with, $$\frac{1}{\sin^2 x} + \frac{1}{\sin^2 (\frac{\pi}{2}-x)} = \frac{\cos^2 x + \sin^2 x}{\cos^2 x \cdot \sin^2 x} = \frac{4}{\sin^2 2x}.$$ Therefore, if we pair up the terms in the sum $S_n$ except the midpoint $\pi/4$ (take the point $x_k$ in the left half of the interval $(0,\pi/2)$ together with the point $\pi/2-x_k$ in the right half) we get 4 times a sum of the same form, but taking twice as big steps so that we only sum over every other gridpoint; that is, over those gridpoints that correspond to splitting the interval into $2^{n-1}$ parts. And the midpoint $\pi/4$ contributes with $1/\sin^2(\pi/4)=2$ to the sum. In short, $$S_n = 4 S_{n-1} + 2.$$ Since $S_1=2$, the solution of this recurrence is $$S_n = \frac{2(4^n-1)}{3}.$$ (For example like this: the particular (constant) solution $(S_p)_n = -2/3$ plus the general solution to the homogeneous equation $(S_h)_n = A \cdot 4^n$, with the constant $A$ determined by the initial condition $S_1=(S_p)_1+(S_h)_1=2$.)
We now have $$ \frac{2(4^n-1)}{3} - (2^n-1) \leq \frac{4^{n+1}}{\pi^2} \sum_{k=1}^{2^n-1} \frac{1}{k^2} \leq \frac{2(4^n-1)}{3}.$$ Multiply by $\pi^2/4^{n+1}$ and let $n\to\infty$. This squeezes the partial sums between two sequences both tending to $\pi^2/6$. Voilà!
We can use the function $f(x)=x^{2}$ with $-\pi \leq x\leq \pi $ and find its expansion into a trigonometric Fourier series
$$\dfrac{a_{0}}{2}+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty }(a_{n}\cos nx+b_{n}\sin nx),$$
which is periodic and converges to $f(x)$ in $[-\pi, \pi] $.
Observing that $f(x)$ is even, it is enough to determine the coefficients
$$a_{n}=\dfrac{1}{\pi }\int_{-\pi }^{\pi }f(x)\cos nx\;dx\qquad n=0,1,2,3,...,$$
because
$$b_{n}=\dfrac{1}{\pi }\int_{-\pi }^{\pi }f(x)\sin nx\;dx=0\qquad n=1,2,3,... .$$
For $n=0$ we have
$$a_{0}=\dfrac{1}{\pi }\int_{-\pi }^{\pi }x^{2}dx=\dfrac{2}{\pi }\int_{0}^{\pi }x^{2}dx=\dfrac{2\pi ^{2}}{3}.$$
And for $n=1,2,3,...$ we get
$$a_{n}=\dfrac{1}{\pi }\int_{-\pi }^{\pi }x^{2}\cos nx\;dx$$
$$=\dfrac{2}{\pi }\int_{0}^{\pi }x^{2}\cos nx\;dx=\dfrac{2}{\pi }\times \dfrac{ 2\pi }{n^{2}}(-1)^{n}=(-1)^{n}\dfrac{4}{n^{2}},$$
because
$$\int x^2\cos nx\;dx=\dfrac{2x}{n^{2}}\cos nx+\left( \frac{x^{2}}{ n}-\dfrac{2}{n^{3}}\right) \sin nx.$$
Thus
$$f(x)=\dfrac{\pi ^{2}}{3}+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty }\left( (-1)^{n}\dfrac{4}{n^{2}} \cos nx\right) .$$
Since $f(\pi )=\pi ^{2}$, we obtain
$$\pi ^{2}=\dfrac{\pi ^{2}}{3}+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty }\left( (-1)^{n}\dfrac{4}{ n^{2}}\cos \left( n\pi \right) \right) $$
$$\pi ^{2}=\dfrac{\pi ^{2}}{3}+4\sum_{n=1}^{\infty }\left( (-1)^{n}(-1)^{n} \dfrac{1}{n^{2}}\right) $$
$$\pi ^{2}=\dfrac{\pi ^{2}}{3}+4\sum_{n=1}^{\infty }\dfrac{1}{n^{2}}.$$
Therefore
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty }\dfrac{1}{n^{2}}=\dfrac{\pi ^{2}}{4}-\dfrac{\pi ^{2}}{12}= \dfrac{\pi ^{2}}{6}$$
Second method (available on-line a few years ago) by Eric Rowland. From
$$\log (1-t)=-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\dfrac{t^n}{n}$$
and making the substitution $t=e^{ix}$ one gets the series expansion
$$w=\text{Log}(1-e^{ix})=-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty }\dfrac{e^{inx}}{n}=-\sum_{n=1}^{ \infty }\dfrac{1}{n}\cos nx-i\sum_{n=1}^{\infty }\dfrac{1}{n}\sin nx,$$
whose radius of convergence is $1$. Now if we take the imaginary part of both sides, the RHS becomes
$$\Im w=-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty }\dfrac{1}{n}\sin nx,$$
and the LHS
$$\Im w=\arg \left( 1-\cos x-i\sin x\right) =\arctan \dfrac{-\sin x}{ 1-\cos x}.$$
Since
$$\arctan \dfrac{-\sin x}{1-\cos x}=-\arctan \dfrac{2\sin \dfrac{x}{2}\cdot \cos \dfrac{x}{2}}{2\sin ^{2}\dfrac{x}{2}}$$
$$=-\arctan \cot \dfrac{x}{2}=-\arctan \tan \left( \dfrac{\pi }{2}-\dfrac{x}{2} \right) =\dfrac{x}{2}-\dfrac{\pi }{2},$$
the following expansion holds
$$\dfrac{\pi }{2}-\frac{x}{2}=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty }\dfrac{1}{n}\sin nx.\qquad (\ast )$$
Integrating the identity $(\ast )$, we obtain
$$\dfrac{\pi }{2}x-\dfrac{x^{2}}{4}+C=-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty }\dfrac{1}{n^{2}}\cos nx.\qquad (\ast \ast )$$
Setting $x=0$, we get the relation between $C$ and $\zeta (2)$
$$C=-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty }\dfrac{1}{n^{2}}=-\zeta (2).$$
And for $x=\pi $, since
$$\zeta (2)=2\sum_{n=1}^{\infty }\dfrac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n^{2}},$$
we deduce
$$\dfrac{\pi ^{2}}{4}+C=-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty }\dfrac{1}{n^{2}}\cos n\pi =\sum_{n=1}^{\infty }\dfrac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n^{2}}=\dfrac{1}{2}\zeta (2)=-\dfrac{1}{ 2}C.$$
Solving for $C$
$$C=-\dfrac{\pi ^{2}}{6},$$
we thus prove
$$\zeta (2)=\dfrac{\pi ^{2}}{6}.$$
Note: this 2nd method can generate all the zeta values $\zeta (2n)$ by integrating repeatedly $(\ast\ast )$. This is the reason why I appreciate it. Unfortunately it does not work for $\zeta (2n+1)$.
Note also the $$C=-\dfrac{\pi ^{2}}{6}$$ can be obtained by integrating $(\ast\ast )$ and substitute $$x=0,x=\pi$$ respectively.
Here is an other one which is more or less what Euler did in one of his proofs.
The function $\sin x$ where $x\in\mathbb{R}$ is zero exactly at $x=n\pi$ for each integer $n$. If we factorized it as an infinite product we get
$$\sin x = \cdots\left(1+\frac{x}{3\pi}\right)\left(1+\frac{x}{2\pi}\right)\left(1+\frac{x}{\pi}\right)x\left(1-\frac{x}{\pi}\right)\left(1-\frac{x}{2\pi}\right)\left(1-\frac{x}{3\pi}\right)\cdots =$$ $$= x\left(1-\frac{x^2}{\pi^2}\right)\left(1-\frac{x^2}{2^2\pi^2}\right)\left(1-\frac{x^2}{3^2\pi^2}\right)\cdots\quad.$$
We can also represent $\sin x$ as a Taylor series at $x=0$:
$$\sin x = x - \frac{x^3}{3!}+\frac{x^5}{5!}-\frac{x^7}{7!}+\cdots\quad.$$
Multiplying the product and identifying the coefficient of $x^3$ we see that
$$\frac{x^3}{3!}=x\left(\frac{x^2}{\pi^2} + \frac{x^2}{2^2\pi^2}+ \frac{x^2}{3^2\pi^2}+\cdots\right)=x^3\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2\pi^2}$$ or $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6}.$$
Here are two interesting links:
Euler's papers;
Euler’s Solution of the Basel Problem – The Longer Story an essay on the subject written by Ed Sandifer.